ORV
11. ଆହୁରି ମଧ୍ୟ, ଯେଉଁ ଲେବୀୟ ଯାଜକତ୍ଵ ଅଧୀନରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ ହେଲେ, ସେହି ଯାଜକତ୍ଵ ଦ୍ଵାରା ଯଦି ସିଦ୍ଧି ଲାଭ ହୁଅନ୍ତା, ତାହାହେଲେ ହାରୋଣଙ୍କ ଶ୍ରେଣୀ ଅନୁସାରେ ଗଣିତ ନ ହୋଇ ମଲ୍କୀଷେଦକଙ୍କ ସଦୃଶ ଅନ୍ୟ ଜଣେ ଯାଜକ ଉତ୍ପନ୍ନ ହେବାର ଆଉ କଅଣ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ଥିଲା?
IRVOR
11. ଆହୁରି ମଧ୍ୟ, ଯେଉଁ ଲେବୀୟ ଯାଜକତ୍ୱ ଅଧୀନରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ମୋଶାଙ୍କ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ ହେଲେ, ସେହି ଯାଜକତ୍ତ୍ୱ ଦ୍ୱାରା ଯଦି ସିଦ୍ଧି ଲାଭ ହୁଅନ୍ତା, ତାହାହେଲେ ହାରୋଣଙ୍କ ଶ୍ରେଣୀ ଅନୁସାରେ ଗଣିତ ନ ହୋଇ ମଲ୍କୀଷେଦକଙ୍କ ସଦୃଶ ଅନ୍ୟ ଜଣେ ଯାଜକ ଉତ୍ପନ୍ନ ହେବାର ଆଉ କ'ଣ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ଥିଲା ?
KJV
11. If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need [was there] that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
AMP
11. Now if perfection (a perfect fellowship between God and the worshiper) had been attainable by the Levitical priesthood--for under it the people were given the Law--why was it further necessary that there should arise another and different kind of Priest, one after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one appointed after the order and rank of Aaron?
KJVP
YLT
11. If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?
ASV
11. Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need was there that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
WEB
11. Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
NASB
11. If, then, perfection came through the levitical priesthood, on the basis of which the people received the law, what need would there still have been for another priest to arise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not reckoned according to the order of Aaron?
ESV
11. Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron?
RV
11. Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need {cf15i was there} that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
RSV
11. Now if perfection had been attainable through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need would there have been for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, rather than one named after the order of Aaron?
NKJV
11. Therefore, if perfection were through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the law), what further need [was there] that another priest should rise according to the order of Melchizedek, and not be called according to the order of Aaron?
MKJV
11. Therefore if perfection were by the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people received the Law), what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
AKJV
11. If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
NRSV
11. Now if perfection had been attainable through the levitical priesthood-- for the people received the law under this priesthood-- what further need would there have been to speak of another priest arising according to the order of Melchizedek, rather than one according to the order of Aaron?
NIV
11. If perfection could have been attained through the Levitical priesthood (for on the basis of it the law was given to the people), why was there still need for another priest to come--one in the order of Melchizedek, not in the order of Aaron?
NIRV
11. Suppose the Levites who were priests could have made people perfect. The law was given to the people so they could become perfect through the priests. Then why was there still a need for another priest to come? And why did he need to be like Melchizedek? Why wasn't he from Aaron's family line?
NLT
11. So if the priesthood of Levi, on which the law was based, could have achieved the perfection God intended, why did God need to establish a different priesthood, with a priest in the order of Melchizedek instead of the order of Levi and Aaron?
MSG
GNB
NET
ERVEN